Sin and Romans 6:7


Question:  How are the dead free from sin according to Romans 6:7?


Romans was written in AD 58 when Paul was still explaining to the Jews the transition from their sacrificial system for sin, to the ultimate solution in Christ Jesus’ death and Resurrection!

At Acts 28:25–28, the Jews became Lo-Ammi (not My people), and the main activity for Paul changed to the Gentile first; but the message was the same for them, but they had never been concerned about sacrifice like the Jews, but needed to know, and Paul and his colleagues were fulfilling the prophecy that the Jewish Messiah would become a “light to the Gentiles” Luke 2:32 and Isa.42:6.

At Acts 28, a big change took place when the Jew took 2nd place to the Messiah message in AD 63, the essential message was/is the same, but the huge numbers of Gentiles makes the “harvest” for God incredibly large.

Because of the difference in understanding, because of their differing traditions, the message to the Gentiles had/has a different slant to that of the Jews, but the Gentiles can be brought to understanding because of in many cases less Religious baggage!

After the Council meeting in Jerusalem, it was decided that the Gentiles did not need to adhere to the same rules as the Jews, i.e., such as circumcision, etc.; and this made some of the teaching easier for the Gentiles to understand!

However, the essentials are the same for Christ’s removal of the person's sin, and Paul goes to great lengths to explain that to Gentiles in all his writings after AD 63!

When you compare the letters of Ephesians, Philippians, Colossians, 1&2 Timothy, Titus, and Philemon, they will give you the completed message.

Acts 4:12 and Acts 28:25-28 


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